"If we are faithless, he remains faithful."
So I've heard it said (and not doubt said it or thought it myself), that even when we act faithlessly and disobey Him, He is still good to us despite our lack of faith. R.C. Sproul takes the passage that way, as do many others. And I hate to disagree with someone as knowledgeable as Sproul, but I think this interpretation misses the point of Paul's statement.
Don't get me wrong; I do believe that though we constantly fall short of living perfectly for His glory, God does continue to shower us with good things and we are assured of His commitment to us through our union with Christ.
But I don't think that's what Paul is saying in 2 Timothy 2:13. The words immediately before the phrase I quoted above read: "If we deny him, he also will deny us." If we deny Him with persistent unbelief, He will deny us; we'll perish in our sins and be lost. That is what verse 13 is repeating: "If we are faithless (the tense of the verb indicates persistent, continual unbelief), he remains faithful," not to us, but to Himself, as the next words indicate: "For he cannot deny himself." God's ultimate commitment is to Himself, and therefore His holiness compels Him to damn the faithless, not remain faithful to them.
At least that's the way I read it. What do you think? Is Sproul right, and I am the one who is misusing this verse?